{"id":8942,"date":"2021-11-04T19:02:50","date_gmt":"2021-11-04T23:02:50","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/awarningministry.com\/?p=8942"},"modified":"2021-11-04T19:02:52","modified_gmt":"2021-11-04T23:02:52","slug":"2-john-17-is-this-an-error-or-a-bad-translation-in-the-king-james-bible-as-some-claim","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/awarningministry.com\/index.php\/2021\/11\/04\/2-john-17-is-this-an-error-or-a-bad-translation-in-the-king-james-bible-as-some-claim\/","title":{"rendered":"2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim?"},"content":{"rendered":"\n

Baptist Theological Forum<\/a><\/h4>\n\n\n\n

Will Kinney<\/strong><\/a>  \u00b7 4h<\/strong><\/a>  \u00b7 2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim?This version rummaging unbeliever in the inerrancy of any Bible in any language tells us that 2 John 1:7 is wrongly translated in the King James Bible. But is he right? Of course not, as we will soon see. This man obviously (from his own words in the video) is his own authority and has NO complete and inerrant Bible in any language to believe in himself or to show to anybody else.His video can be seen here –https:\/\/www.youtube.com\/watch?v=Y9mjRNoOM-Q<\/a>This man, Josh Sommer, with his school boy Greek, claims that the definite article is twice not translated correctly in the KJB. Instead of saying THE deceiver and THE antichrist, the KJB (and many others as we shall soon see) have translated these two definite articles in Greek as indefinite articles – A and AN.7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is A deceiver and AN antichrist.First of all, the Greek definite articles are often not used in the same way as they are in English. Anyone who has gotten just a little beyond knowing how to read the Greek alphabet should know this, and this man builds his whole case for a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the KJB on his ignorance of how the Greek definite article is used and translated in virtually every Bible version in history.See my article here with many concrete examples – The Greek Definite Article is not used in the same way as the English Definite Article.https:\/\/brandplucked.webs.com\/greekdefinitearticle.htm<\/a>Definite articles are not used the same way in Greek as they are in English. There is NO Bible translation out there I am aware of that always translates the Greek definite articles, nor should they always be translated.Here’s a quote from Dana and Mantey’s “A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament”, p. 150-151. “It is important to bear in mind that we cannot determine the English translation by the presence or absence of the article in Greek. Sometimes we should use the article in the English translation when it is not used in the Greek, and sometimes the idiomatic force of the Greek article may best be rendered by an anarthrous noun in English.”Secondly, and most importantly, IF the KJB translators (who were far more knowledgable and proficient in Greek than this Bible corrector will ever be) had translated this as “For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is THE deceiver and THE antichrist.\u201d it would have resulted in both a logical and a theological blunder.There were many deceivers, not just THE deceiver, and many antichrists. if THE antichrist was then present, then he died long ago and there will be NO antichrist in the future because there was only one of them, and he was there during the time of the apostle John.And it would contradict what John himself says in 1 John 2:18 – Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that ANTICHRIST SHALL COME, EVEN NOW ARE THERE MANY ANTICHRISTS; whereby we know that it is the last time.Since Josh does not tell us which bible version he prefers, I will go with the ESV edition of 2 John and show how many times the ESV OMITS the definite article and does not translate it, and how many times it ADDS the definite article when it is not there in the Greek.I went through all 12 verses from the Vatican supervised Critical text, which is the textual basis for the ESV, NASB, NIV, NET, Jehovah Witness NWT and the modern Catholic versions, and the ESV does NOT translate the Greek definite article some 13 times and it ADDS the definite article when not in the Greek text 7 times, and this is just in 12 short verses.Bible translations that agree with the King James Bible and “This is A deceiver and AN antichrist.\u201d Are Wycliffe 1395, Tyndale 1524, Coverdale 1535, the Great Bible 1540, Matthew\u2019s Bible 1549, the Bishops\u2019 bible 1568, Douay-Rheims 1582, the Geneva Bible 1587, the Beza N.T. 1599, the Mace N.T. 1729, Whiston\u2019s N.T 1745, the Worsley N.T. 1770, Haweis N.T. 1795, Webster Bible 1833, Lamsa\u2019s 1836 translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the Twentieth Century New Testament 1904, The NKJV 1982, The Complete Jewish Bible 1998, Third Millennium Bible 1998, the Tomson N.T. 2002, Resurrection Life N.T. 2005, New Century Version 2005, Names of God Bible 2011, The Voice 2012, the International Standard Version 2014, Modern English Version 2014, New Living Translation 2015, the International Children\u2019s Bible 2015, the Evangelical Heritage Version 2019, God\u2019s Word Translation 2020 and the Jubilee Bible 2020.The King James Bible is always right, and the Bible agnostics just can’t stand it.BRANDPLUCKED.WEBS.COMAnother King James Bible Believer
<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

Baptist Theological Forum Will Kinney  \u00b7 4h  \u00b7 2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim?This version rummaging unbeliever in the inerrancy of any Bible in any language tells us that 2 John 1:7 is wrongly translated in the King James Bible. But is he right? Of course…
Read more<\/a><\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"_monsterinsights_skip_tracking":false,"_monsterinsights_sitenote_active":false,"_monsterinsights_sitenote_note":"","_monsterinsights_sitenote_category":0,"footnotes":""},"categories":[44,15,5],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-8942","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-hermenuetics-exegesis-homiletics-eisegesis","category-modernbiblerversions","category-properbibleinterpretation"],"yoast_head":"\n2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim? - Earnestly Contend For The Faith Jude 3<\/title>\n<meta name=\"robots\" content=\"noindex, follow, max-snippet:-1, max-image-preview:large, max-video-preview:-1\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:locale\" content=\"en_US\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:type\" content=\"article\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:title\" content=\"2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim? - Earnestly Contend For The Faith Jude 3\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:description\" content=\"Baptist Theological Forum Will Kinney  \u00b7 4h  \u00b7 2 John 1:7 Is this an error or a \u201cbad translation\u201d in the King James Bible as some claim?This version rummaging unbeliever in the inerrancy of any Bible in any language tells us that 2 John 1:7 is wrongly translated in the King James Bible. 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